Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
11.06.2025 04:23
You'll usually find your answer there.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Why do I sweat a great deal while exercising the same on some days and not so much on others?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
There's no rule.
Chrysler Is 100 Years Old, and It's 'Back On,' Stellantis Design Boss Gilles Says - Road & Track
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.